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ladybirdsleeps
2008-08-04 11:46 pm UTC (link)

This is really tangential to your question, but it strikes me as a likely misconception that Castilian is "more formal" than Argentinian Spanish.

This is somewhat like saying that British English is more formal than American English; it may be considered more prestigious by some, but Americans in general don't start to use RP when in formal settings. That would be seen as incredibly pretentious.

It's possible that educated people in Argentina in your time period tried to imitate a more prestigious dialect, and that that dialect was Castilian, but simply assuming that they did is based on a major misconception, that more prestigious (often meaning European) = formal. This isn't true at all.

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