If you collect alimony, you're a moneygrubbing whore.
Okay, so

bad_service about her father-in-law passing away and his girlfriend of five years, claiming to be the man's wife, cremating him within 24 hours without consulting his family/next of kin or having any legal paperwork of any kind. Distressed because she and other family members did not get a chance to pay their respects and receive closure, she calls this bad service on the part of the funeral home.

Cue.... alimony wank!

Yes, that's right. Forget the possibly irresponsible/unethical funeral home and the possibly shady circumstances, it's all about them moneygrubbin' hos because alimony is charity and true feminists would have none of it.

Some lone voices of reason pipe up, nobly excusing

cbpiz due to her distressed state while at the same time patiently disagreeing with her, but no, alimony is for the weak.

Uh-huh.

The wank is dying down, as the OP seems to realize this isn't the time/place, but was it ever vociferous.

(links ?style=mine'd for reading convenience)

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	stella_polaris 2007-06-12 01:39 pm UTC (link)
	Just out of curiosity, what are the laws considering alimony? That is, on what basis does one get it and how much? Is it solely the man's responsibility, or do women pay it too? Because if they don't, then it is a bit "wtf" -inducing. (Reply to this)(Thread)

	iwanttobeasleep 2007-06-12 02:33 pm UTC (link)
	Depends a lot on the state and situation, but if one spouse supports the other, regardless of gender, he or she pays. Most of the time it's the husband, since our society pays men more and expects them to be the ones working if someone isn't going to, but under the rare circumstances that the wife is the primary breadwinner, she does pay. (Reply to this)(Parent)(Thread)

	stella_polaris 2007-06-12 02:54 pm UTC (link)
	How is the "one spouse supports the other" thing generally defined? I mean, how small an income does the other spouse need to have to be eligeble for alimony? (Reply to this)(Parent)(Thread)

cat_mcdougall
2007-06-12 03:03 pm UTC (link)

I think it comes out to "less than half". (And this is strictly as a layman.)

However! This means that Wife makes... $50k per year at a job. Hubby makes $25k. She pays him alimony. As long as the marriage has lasted X# of years (which is totally subjective, sometimes even down to the judge.)

It also means that wife, who has spent the last 30years raising kids, or whatever, will get alimony because she hasn't been in the workforce for so long that her skills are outdated.

So, it really comes down to "it depends."

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ruby_falls
2007-06-12 04:45 pm UTC (link)

Where I practice, there's no set rules for determining that. The court looks at different factors - income of both parties, lifestyle during the marriage, income potential for the person requesting alimony, presence of small children, length of marriage, and who was at fault for the marriage ending - and then decides what is a fair amount, and the length of time it should be paid.

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	frequentmouse 2007-06-12 05:40 pm UTC (link)
	In the US, it really does come down to what the state law is. As far as I know, in my state the only time a spouse gets separate support after divorce is if s/he is disabled, elderly, or if the supporting spouse has done something to render that spouse unemployable. (Reply to this)(Parent)

	v_digitalwytch 2007-06-21 09:50 am UTC (link)
	In my case, my ex was very controlling and pretty much kept me out of the workforce for little over 15 years. While I did qualify for spousal support, I didn't take it since one of the reasons for the divorce was his inability despite some pretty sizeable paychecks to pay the bills and afford groceries for the kids. (Reply to this)(Parent)

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